WTI Threat Inventory Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which of the following is NOT a type of air-to-air missile guidance?
• What is the name of the Chinese produced Guided Missile Cruiser?
• Which designation corresponds to the air-launched land-attack cruise missile launched from a bomber by Russia?
• CH-AA-7 (ADZE) and CH-AA-10 (ABBADON) are Chinese air-to-air missiles with which characteristic in common?
• How does a risk appetite statement influence inventory prioritization?
• SA-7b appears in the inventory as which class of system?
• Air-to-air missile with active homing is characterized by what?
• Which system is a well-known self-propelled anti-aircraft platform?
• Which designation is SA-8b?
• Which vessel type corresponds to FFLG?
• How should threat intelligence be integrated into risk prioritization?
• Circular Error Probable (CEP) describes what property of a weapon's accuracy?
• What is the purpose of prioritizing threats within a threat inventory?
• Describe a process to inventory software assets across cloud and on‑prem environments.
• Imaging Seeker is a characteristic of which generation?
• How should risk appetite be reflected in dashboards and reporting?
• Which term describes a missile that homes on the target's emitted radio frequency without active illumination?
• Which vessel type corresponds to CG?
• What is the name of the Chinese produced Guided Missile Destroyer?
• How should data classification levels map to threat inventory risk ratings?
• In the PASTA methodology, which stage focuses on vulnerability analysis?
• During terminal phase, which technique is typically used to guide the missile to the target?
• How does a threat inventory inform resource allocation and remediation prioritization?
• What is the standard formula for calculating a risk score given likelihood and impact?
• The CH-AS-5 is a Chinese air-to-surface missile designed to be launched from which platform?
• Which designation corresponds to SA-8b?
• How can threat actor capabilities influence risk prioritization in a threat inventory?
• Which aircraft pair are Chinese EA Aircraft?
• Which Chinese surface-to-surface missile is an IRBM launched from TEL and intended for anti-ship and strategic land attack?
• Which aircraft is the JH-7A Flounder B described as Land Attack Strike / Anti-Surface warfare?
• RS-AA-12 (Adder) has which guidance type?
• In a hypothetical prioritization scenario, which combination of threats and mitigations best demonstrates inventory prioritization by risk score?
• What is the role of mitigations in ATT&CK data for risk scoring?
• Which aircraft is described as Ka-52 Hokum with Attack roles including AG and AA/AS Attack and C2?
• Which item is commonly considered an external attack surface?
• Gen 4 MANPADS uses which type of seeker?
• The Z-10 is primarily categorized as which type of helicopter?
• Which designation corresponds to an Intelligence Collection Ship?
• Which vessel type corresponds to CVN?
• Noise / Denial Jamming is best described as which of the following?
• MIR in this collection refers to which description?
• Gen 5 MANPADS describes Maximum Range of intercept that may be limited by factors such as max time of flight, self destruct timer, uplink timing. Which option best captures this concept?
• When feeding threat modeling outputs into the threat inventory, which of the following elements are included?
• Which designation corresponds to SA-6?
• Which vessel type corresponds to DD?
• Which Chinese UAV has ISR as its primary mission?
• Which PASTA stage involves evaluating risks and planning mitigations?
• What type is the SS-26 missile?
• Gen 2 MANPADS is characterized by which seeker/follower capability?
• Which data sources are most valuable for inventory-driven detection?
• Which designation is not a CSA designation?
• Which aircraft is the Ka-52 Hokum described as an Attack Helicopter with AG Attack and AA Attack/AS Attack (C2)?
• Which missile remains in the atmosphere and is propelled by an air-breathing engine?
• How should changes to assets or controls be tracked within the inventory?
• In ATT&CK terminology, which term describes a specific instance of a technique?
• Which designation is a CSA designation?
• Which item is listed as a jamming target?
• What type of guidance guides a missile toward the infrared signature of the target?
• How do threat inventory and risk register differ in purpose?
• What term describes armor that relies on the kinetic energy from an inbound penetrator to trigger a reaction that releases stored energy?
• Which designation is the SA-15?
• Which designation corresponds to a Corvette?
• Which term is defined as the statistical probability that a weapon will detonate close enough to the target with enough effectiveness to destroy the target?
• How would you map a phishing email to an ATT&CK technique and tactic?
• Which description best defines a tactic in the ATT&CK framework?
• Which guidance scheme involves the missile containing both the source for illuminating the target and the receiver for detecting and homing on energy reflected from the target?
• RAP stands for which of the following?
• What is the second stage of the PASTA threat modeling methodology?
• How would you evaluate the effectiveness of a threat inventory after remediation?
• Jet powered strategic UAV which is described in the material?
• Which platform is described as a jet-powered strategic UAV in the material?
• What does residual risk mean in a threat inventory?
• What is the primary purpose of maintaining a threat inventory within an organization’s security program?
• Deception Jamming is described by which statement?
• What is the correct sequence of typical incident response playbook phases?
• What role does threat inventory play in selecting and sequencing security controls?
• Which of the following is a function of an IADS?
• Which guidance scheme features the missile having its own active seeker to locate and track the target?
• Threat modeling outputs can feed the threat inventory by:
• Which STRIDE category is illustrated by a brute-force login that leads to a Denial of Service?
• In SAGG/TVM, who provides target illumination and uplink guidance commands to the missile?
• Which Chinese MRBM is designed for strategic land attack and anti-ship roles and uses TEL?
• Which of the following would NOT typically be considered an asset in a threat inventory?
• How can ATT&CK data enhance risk scoring in a threat inventory?
• Which aircraft is the H-6K Badger described as Land Attack, Strike / Electronic Attack?
• Which aircraft is described for air interdiction and electronic attack/SEAD missions?
• In applying STRIDE to a web login form, which category best describes impersonation of a legitimate user?
• What processes govern the lifecycle of threat inventory items?
• Which aircraft is listed as a Multi-role Fighter (no further specialization)?
• Which item best captures the nature of threat actors for the inventory?
• Which designation is SA-6?
• Which designation is a CSA designation?
• The Mi-24V Hind E is described as which two-role configuration?
• The Mi-24V Hind E is classified as which helicopter type?
• How should high-priority threats be mitigated?
• What is the purpose of compensating controls in a threat inventory?
• Which threat actor type is primarily motivated by curiosity?
• Which statement best distinguishes threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts within a threat inventory?
• Which aircraft is described as Russia's most advanced AEW&C aircraft?
• The NATO reporting name ADZE belongs to which Chinese air-to-air missile?
• What are the stages of the threat intelligence lifecycle?
• Which aircraft is configured for multi-role strike, electronic attack, and SEAD missions?
• Which of the following is a Soviet self-propelled anti-aircraft gun?
• RS-AA-10 has which type of guidance?
• What is the role of audit trails in threat inventory governance?
• Forms of guidance that combine aspects of command and semi-active guidance schemes are collectively known as what?
• Which NATO name corresponds to the Russian GPS jamming system?
• What is a primary goal of threat inventory?
• Which of the following is a SA-series model?
• Which Russian SRBM uses TEL launch platform and targets ground-based targets?
• Which guidance scheme detects and homes in on natural target emissions such as infrared signatures or emitted RF waves?
• Which platform is a jet-powered UAV associated with the topic?
• Which threat actor type is associated with espionage?
• Which helicopter is associated with the hint 'Enclosed Tail Rotor'?
• Which vessel type corresponds to DDG?
• Which is a listed nav signal jamming target?
• Which designation is SA-22b?
• The IL-22PP MUTE is best described as which type of platform?
• Which aircraft is associated with Air to Air / Air to Surface missions?
• When a high-risk threat is detected and validated, what is the appropriate action for the threat inventory?
• Which categories are included in the STRIDE threat modeling framework?
• SCUD B is a Russian missile of which type?
• Terminal guidance involves an AI radar illuminating the target and the missile guiding based on reflected energy. Which term best describes this guidance approach?
• Which designation corresponds to Gen 4 MANPADS?
• Which designation corresponds to a standard Aircraft Carrier (not nuclear)?
• What best describes threat hunting in relation to threat inventory?
• Which guidance scheme uses energy reflected off the target provided by an outside source to guide the missile?
• Which designation is SA-11a?
• Provide an example of a technique related to credential access or lateral movement and map to ATT&CK.
• Which aircraft is China's most advanced and numerous AEW&C aircraft?
• How does a post-incident review feed back into the threat inventory?
• Re-programmable Processors are associated with which generation?
• The Mi-24V Hind E lists which as an additional role?
• What constitutes an asset in a WTI Threat Inventory, and which of the following are valid examples?
• Which is the Small Russian UAS?
• Explain qualitative vs quantitative risk scoring; give examples.
• The Russian jamming system codenamed R-330Zh has which primary mission?
• How can an organization quantify attack surface size within the threat inventory?
• Which sequence best reflects the lifecycle of threat inventory items?
• SAGG stands for which phrase relevant to its acronym?
• How should threat inventory inform incident response planning?
• Which aircraft is the J-16 Flanker N described as a Multi-Role Fighter?
• In a threat inventory, how should data sensitivity affect risk scoring for an equivalent threat?
• Which of the following is NOT among the listed vessel types?
• Air-to-air missiles employing semi-active homing rely on illumination from an external source to guide the seeker. Which statement best describes this?
• Which statement accurately contrasts STRIDE and PASTA in threat modeling?
• The attack surface in WTI refers to which concept?
• What does the KPI 'coverage of critical assets' measure?
• In SAGG/TVM, the ground system illuminates the target and the missile receives energy reflected from the target; the missile transmits raw engagement data to the ground to generate uplink guidance commands. This is an example of which mode?
• Which missile is associated with NATO name ADDER and has BVR with medium range and active guidance?
• Which system uses GNSS to guide missiles?
• Gen 1 MANPADS is associated with which of the following features?
• Which vessel type corresponds to FFG?
• Probability of Kill is defined as which term?
• Which guidance scheme requires the ground system to track the missile and target and relay steering commands during flight?
• Which sources and data types are commonly used in threat intelligence for inventory?
• Which Chinese UAV has ISR, Strike, and EA as its missions?
• Which Chinese missile uses TEL as its launch platform among the following?
• Midcourse guidance that relies on GNSS to guide the missile is called what?
• Which guidance scheme involves a digital uplink to an INS-equipped missile and is used only for midcourse guidance?
• Which of the following is a common external attack surface for a modern enterprise?
• Which Chinese air-to-surface missile is designed to be launched from bomber aircraft such H-6 Badger variants?
• Spearphishing Attachment is a subtechnique under which main tactic?
• What does defense-in-depth mean in security controls?
• Which aircraft is a multi-role fighter capable of Counter Air and Land Attack Strike?
• Which aircraft corresponds to the J-16 Flanker N?
• What are typical phases of incident response playbooks in the context of threats?
• Which of the following is a CSA designation?
• The RS-AS-17 is designed as a Russian air-to-surface missile associated with which aircraft category?
• The NATO reporting name ALAMO corresponds to which missile?
• Produced by Israel, operated by China, with primary SEAD mission?
• Gen 3 MANPADS employs what type of processing capability?
• Which approach best describes how to quantify attack surface size by risk?
• What is the name of the Chinese produced Guided Missile Frigate?
• Which missile type is defined by initial rocket propulsion followed by a ballistic path?
• Explain DREAD scoring and its use in risk prioritization.
• Which designation is CSA-16?
• What is the primary role of the Mi-24V Hind E?
• Which statement correctly describes preventive, detective, and responsive controls with examples?
• IRCCM is used by which generation?
• Which vessel type corresponds to FFL?
• What best defines a threat inventory in a security program?
• Which governance elements ensure accuracy and accountability of a threat inventory?
• Which missile type is propelled by a rocket engine only during the initial phase and then follows an unpowered ballistic arc?
• Which Russian air-to-surface missile is described as supporting anti-radiation and anti-ship cruise missile roles?
• How do privacy and data handling regulations influence threat inventory design?
• Which subsystem uses accelerometers and gyroscopes to determine position after leaving a known launch position without external signals?
• Which aircraft is described as Counter Air / Multi-role fighter?
• Which term describes a missile that uses an onboard active radar seeker to find and lock onto a target without external illumination?
• Which metrics are typical KRIs/KPIs for threat inventories?
• Which statement best describes the role of MITRE ATT&CK in threat inventories?
• Which data type is commonly used to identify attacker infrastructure in threat intelligence?
• Midcourse guidance that uses measurement devices to compute position due to acceleration after launch is based on which system?
• Which missile is the Russian air-to-air weapon with multiple guidance modes (NATO name ALAMO)?
• Which aircraft is the J-20A described as Counter Air / Multi-role fighter?
• Which Russian SRBM has the NATO designation Stone?
• Which aircraft is the J-11B Flanker L primarily listed as?
• What is the role of change control in threat inventory governance?
• Which designation is CSA-14?
• Which type of jamming uses EM energy to confuse or distract adversarial EMS-based systems and its operators?
• What is the role of threat probability vs asset value in risk scoring?
• The NATO reporting name ABBADON belongs to which Chinese air-to-air missile?
• What are the essential components of a risk assessment in the WTI framework?
• Which statement best reflects the difference between malicious insiders and negligent insiders in the threat inventory?
• Which aircraft is described as an Attack Helicopter in the list?
• How do existing controls affect residual risk?
• MRIR is defined as which of the following descriptions?
• Midcourse guidance that receives commands from a ground station is typically implemented using which method?
• MIR describes which of the following?
• The NATO reporting name ADDER corresponds to which missile?